What did Paul mean by 'all things are lawful for me'?
Paul meant he was no longer under the law's burden, so all things were lawful in the sense that the law no longer controlled him. He was free from its demands, yet he refused to use that freedom as license, because the Holy Spirit controlled every facet of his life and would never lead him into sin.
Les explains that Paul could write this way as a Jew, teaching that believers should serve in newness of spirit and not in the oldness of the letter. Paul meant they are no longer under the demands of the Ten Commandments of Moses, but are now under the control of the Holy Spirit. Be logical: the Holy Spirit will never lead a believer to do something contrary to the law, such as adultery or idolatry. Without the burden of the law and the fear of breaking it, there is now grace, and the Holy Spirit leads, guides, and directs so that we keep the law—under a whole different set of circumstances. So when Paul says all things are lawful, he is not under that burden of the law per se and is free from it, but he will not take advantage of it or make license of it, because the Holy Spirit controls every facet of his life. He says all things are lawful for him because he is not under the law, but he will not be brought under the power of any of those things the law forbids.
All things are lawful unto me, but all things are not expedient: all things are lawful for me, but I will not be brought under the power of any.
More Questions
Why could Paul say all things are lawful for him yet refuse to be mastered by them?
Paul can say 'all things are lawful for me' because he is not under the law, but he will not be brought under the power of any of the things the law forbids.