Why is there no difference between Jew and Gentile now?
Because everything was accomplished at the cross, God now deals with Jew and Gentile without difference in this present age of grace. The Old Testament economy and the Law were settled at the cross, so a Jew need not surrender Jewishness but must separate from Law. Both stand on the same finished work.
Les teaches that Romans 9 deals with Israel's past, Romans 10 with Israel's present in this dispensation, and Romans 11 with Israel's future. In Romans 3 Paul made plain that since everything was accomplished at the cross and the message now goes out into the Gentile world, there is no difference. A Jew does not have to give up his Jewishness, but he must separate himself from the Old Testament economy, because this age of grace has nothing to do with Law. That was all settled at the cross, and Colossians says He took them and nailed them to His cross.
Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.
Does a Jewish person today come to God on a different basis than a Gentile?
No. Scripture declares there is no difference today: a Jewish person must approach God on the same basis as a Gentile. Paul’s teaching in Romans 3 establishes that the Jew has no separate path to God in the present age.
Why is there no difference between Jew and Gentile now that Paul goes to the Gentiles?
Because everything was accomplished at the cross, and Paul now goes to the Gentile world, Scripture declares there is no difference. A Jew need not abandon Jewishness, but must separate from the Old Testament economy and Law. This age of grace has nothing to do with Law; that was settled at the cross.
More Questions
Is there any difference between Jews and Gentiles in how they receive God's righteousness?
In the matter of receiving righteousness, there is now no distinction between Jew and Gentile; everyone is on the same level, and the Jew's former privileges of the law, word, and priesthood no longer give them preeminence.
What advantages did Jews have in the past that they no longer have?
The Jews used to have a place of preeminence through the law, the word, and the priesthood, but that advantage is gone now that there is no distinction between Jew and Gentile.