Why Did Jesus Refer to the Woman as 'Woman'?

Direct Answer

Jesus used 'woman' as a respectful, customary form of address, not as a put-down.

In the encounter with the Canaanite woman, the word precedes Jesus' praise of her great faith and the healing of her daughter. At the cross, when Jesus called Mary 'Woman,' Les Feldick emphasizes it was a word of endearment used in keeping with the custom of the day.

Key Scriptures

Matthew 15:28 — This verse records Jesus saying 'O woman, great is thy faith,' directly showing the term is followed by praise.

John 19:26 — This is the verse Les Feldick explicitly explains as Jesus using 'Woman' as a word of endearment.

What Does the Bible Say?

Matthew 15 records a woman of Canaan who came to Jesus for her demon-vexed daughter. After the disciples asked Him to send her away, Jesus finally answered her with the words, 'Then Jesus answered and said unto her, O woman, great is thy faith: be it unto thee even as thou wilt. And her daughter was made whole from that very hour.' The verse uses the address 'woman' as the beginning of a commendation, not an insult. At the cross, John 19:26 says, 'When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son!' The same term appears as He arranges for John to care for Mary. In both passages, the word is part of an act of mercy and provision.

What Does Les Feldick Teach About the Bible's Use of 'Woman'?

Les Feldick directly addresses the word in John 19. In our era, he says, 'for us to address a lady as a woman, we would almost think it is a little bit of a put down.' But when Jesus spoke, 'it was certainly a word of endearment.' He calls it 'in perfect accord with the custom of the day' and says it was not any kind of put-down and did not detract from Mary's name. For the Canaanite woman, Les shows that the real obstacle was not the title 'woman' but her position as a Gentile. She was outside the covenants, which were Jew only. She first called Him 'Son of David,' a Jewish title, and then correctly addressed Him as 'Lord.' Jesus said the children's bread belongs to the children, the Jews, yet He was not bigoted. Les says He had a heart for the Gentiles, but it was not time. After her persistence, Jesus condescended and granted her wish.

Why Did Jesus Say 'Woman, Behold Thy Son' at the Cross?

Les Feldick says our modern ears might consider calling a lady 'woman' a slight, but under the custom of that day it was not. He explains that when Jesus spoke from the cross, 'Woman' was a word of endearment. It did not detract from Mary's name, and it was immediately followed by Jesus placing her under John's care.

Why Was the Canaanite Woman Told She Was Not Part of the Children's Bread?

Les explains that the 'children' in Jesus' answer are the Jews. The grand covenants belonged to Israel, and a Gentile had no right to presume on them. Jesus fully understood all this and was not being bigoted; He had a heart for the Gentiles, but the time for the Gentile program had not yet come. The children's bread could not yet be given to Gentiles before the promises to Israel were fulfilled.

How Did Jesus Respond to the Canaanite Woman's Persistence?

The twelve were aware that Jesus told them not to go to the Gentiles but to the lost sheep of the house of Israel, so they wanted to send her away. At first glance Jesus did not respond to her request, but after much pleading, as Les puts it, He 'finally condescended to her, and He granted her wish.' The Bible then records that her daughter was made whole from that very hour.

From the Teaching

The Canaanite Woman and the Covenants

Les explains that the woman was a Gentile with no right to presume on Israel's covenants, and that she mistakenly used the Jewish title 'Son of David' before calling Jesus 'Lord.'

The Disciples' Instructions

Les notes that the twelve knew Jesus had commanded them to go only to the lost sheep of Israel, which shaped their desire to send the Canaanite woman away.

'Woman, Behold Thy Son'

Les directly teaches that Jesus calling Mary 'woman' was not a put-down but a word of endearment under the custom of the day.

Jesus Finally Grants Her Request

Les points out that Jesus did not grant the Canaanite woman's request on first glance because she was a Gentile, but after much pleading He condescended and granted her wish.

A Heart for the Gentiles

Les says Jesus was not being bigoted and had a heart for the Gentiles, but the time had not yet come; Israel's promises came first.

Is Baptism Required for Salvation? What Acts 8 Really Says

The woman answered and said, I have no husband. Jesus said unto her, Thou hast well said, I have no husband, for thou hast had five, and he whom thou now hast is not thy husband. Sounds familiar doesn�t it? Verse 18. In that thou sayest truly, The woman saith unto him, Sir, I perceive that thou art a prophet. Now look at verse 20.

Custom of the Day

Les reinforces that 'woman' at the cross was not any kind of put-down and was in perfect accord with the custom of the day.

Is Baptism Required for Salvation? What Acts 8 Really Says

Why did God withhold the Holy Spirit from these baptized Samaritan believers until Peter and John come up, or come down? Well go back with me to John�s Gospel chapter 4. And here we have the account of Jesus and the woman at the well, don�t we? You all know the story. Oh, I don�t even know where to start. I don�t like to just jump in on one verse.

Bible Verses

Matthew 15:28: Then Jesus answered and said unto her, O woman, great is thy faith: be it unto thee even as thou wilt. And her daughter was made whole from that very hour.

This is the direct record of Jesus addressing the Canaanite woman as 'O woman' before honoring her faith.

John 19:26: When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son!

This is the passage Les Feldick uses to show the word 'Woman' was a term of endearment, not disrespect.

Frequently Asked Questions

Did Jesus ever address the Canaanite woman as 'woman'?

Yes. In Matthew 15:28 the King James Bible reads, 'O woman, great is thy faith.' The address immediately precedes Jesus' commendation of her and the healing of her daughter, so it is not a word of rejection.

Was calling Mary 'woman' at the cross disrespectful?

No. Les Feldick says that although our culture might take it as a put-down, under the custom of the day it was a word of endearment. Jesus used it while arranging for John to care for Mary, so it carried care and honor.

Why did Jesus not immediately help the Canaanite woman?

Les explains that she was a Gentile with no claim on the covenant promises that belonged to Israel. Jesus was not being bigoted; He had a heart for Gentiles, but the time had not yet come. After her persistence, He granted her request.

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Source Video

Watch the Teaching: Why Jesus Told His Disciples: Don't Go to Gentiles