Why did Paul write 'I would not have you to be ignorant' in 1 Thessalonians 4?
Paul wrote it because this revelation had never been given before; he was the first to disclose it. He did not want believers ignorant about those who had died physically, so they would not grieve hopelessly like the lost, who have no concept of what awaits beyond death.
Les explains that Paul uses almost the same language here as he used in 1 Corinthians 15, saying, “I would not have you to be ignorant.” Paul could assume such ignorance because this truth had never been heard before; Paul is the first one to reveal it, so he intends to bring believers out of ignorance. Specifically, he does not want them ignorant concerning them who are asleep, or who have died physical death. Since everyone has experienced the loss of loved ones, Paul says believers should not sorrow as others who have no hope. Les notes that pagans or lost people, having no concept of what is out there, fall apart, weep, and wail at funerals.
But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others which have no hope.
More Questions
Why does Paul say 'I would not have you to be ignorant' in both 1 Corinthians 15 and 1 Thessalonians 4?
Paul uses the same phrase 'I would not have you to be ignorant' in both 1 Corinthians 15 and 1 Thessalonians 4:13.