Why does Paul ask 'What shall we say then?' at the start of Romans 6?
Paul asks "What shall we say then?" to confront the slanderous charge that he taught believers could sin freely so grace might abound. He raises the question to reject the idea that grace licenses continuing in sin, answering "God forbid!" He clarifies that liberty is not license to go contrary to God's Word.
Les explains that Paul still has on his mind what he wrote in chapter 3, where he was slanderously reported as teaching and preaching that they could now do as they pleased. So Paul asks, 'What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound?' In other words, are we to actually test God's offer of grace by seeing how much we can do and get away with it? Of course not. He says, 'God forbid!' Les stresses that while believers are set free and at liberty, it is not liberty to go contrary to the Word of God. Liberty means we must determine between ourselves and the Lord what our behavior will be in certain areas.
What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound?
What was Paul slanderously accused of teaching in Romans 3 that he still has in mind in Romans 6?
Paul was slanderously reported as teaching and preaching that, because grace abounds, believers could now do as they pleased and continue in sin. In Romans 6 he still has that accusation in mind when he asks whether we should continue in sin so grace may abound, then answers, God forbid.
What does Paul mean by 'shall we continue in sin that grace may abound,' and what is his answer?
Paul means grace does not give license to sin or test God's offer by seeing how much one can get away with. His answer is emphatic: God forbid! Those dead to sin through old Adam cannot live any longer therein; their liberty is never freedom to go contrary to God's Word.
More Questions
Why does the teacher turn to Romans to explain Galatians?
The book of Galatians relates to Romans the way a pencil sketch relates to the finished oil painting: Galatians is introductory, while Romans makes the same truths a lot plainer.
What did Paul mean by 'continue in sin' in Romans 6:1?
When Paul asks 'Shall we continue in sin?' in Romans 6:1, he means: shall we continue to let old Adam have his way and reign as king just because God's grace is greater?